Julie with a B

Monday, March 13, 2006
At what point does the right to become a father become real?
Continuing with the discussion below, at what point does the man back out of fatherhood? I suggest that, in the below case, he signed on to fatherhood when he agreed to have the embryos created. The legal side of the argument says, no, he and the woman also signed the contract that states that both parents have to agree to have the embryos implanted. Truly there is no legal discussion here, only, in this case, a plea for empathy for the plight of the potential mother.

Charlie, Pusillanimous Wanker, states in comments:
For some reason, I don't have a problem with this. I can't really put my finger on it, though.
"It seems to me that consent when the embryos were conceived is consent to be a parent" sounds too much like an anti-abortionist's argument to me.
Think about it for a while and roll it over; reverse the genders, reverse the "inside/outside the womb" question, and it all gets complicated and confusing quickly.
Doesn't a male have some measure of "choice"? Especially considering that, as you pointed out, the embryo has not yet implanted?
A female has that choice . . . even after implantation.
For now, anyway.

Which is my point. Of course he has a choice to not become a father, particularly in this case. However, Charlie, if this is inside the womb, and the partners have consentual sex, and there is a legal agreement for non-parenthood, unless both agree, could he force her to have an abortion?



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